[PDF&VCE] 2016 Exam 400-101 Dumps From Lead2pass Cover All New 400-101 New Questions (401-425)

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QUESTION 401
Refer to the exhibit. Which technology can be used on the switch to enable host A to receive multicast packets for 239.2.2.2 but prevent host B from receiving them?

4011

A.    IGMP filtering
B.    MLD snooping
C.    IGMP snooping
D.    MLD filtering

Answer: C

QUESTION 402
Which option describes the purpose of the PPP endpoint discriminator?

A.    It identifies the maximum payload packet.
B.    It notifies the peer that it prefers 12-bit sequence numbers.
C.    It identifies the system attached to the link.
D.    It determines whether a loopback is on the link.

Answer: C

QUESTION 403
Which three statements about SPAN traffic monitoring are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Traffic from a non-source VLAN is discarded when it arrives on a source VLAN.
B.    Multiple sessions can send traffic to an individual destination port.
C.    It supports up to 32 SPAN ports per switch.
D.    The destination port acts as a normal switchport.
E.    It supports up to 64 SPAN ports per switch.
F.    Only one session can send traffic to an individual destination port.

Answer: AEF

QUESTION 404
Which option describes how a VTPv3 device responds when it detects a VTPv2 device on a trunk port?

A.    It sends VTPv3 packets only.
B.    It sends VTPv2 packets only.
C.    It sends VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets.
D.    It sends a special packet that contains VTPv3 and VTPv2 packet information.

Answer: C

QUESTION 405
Which three statements about bridge assurance are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Bridge assurance must be enabled on both ends of a link.
B.    Bridge assurance can be enabled on one end of a link or on both ends.
C.    Bridge assurance is enabled on STP point-to-point links only.
D.    Bridge assurance is enabled on STP multipoint links only.
E.    If a bridge assurance port fails to receive a BPDU after a timeout, the port is put into a blocking state.
F.    If a bridge assurance port fails to receive a BPDU after a timeout, the port is put into an error
disabled state.

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 406
What is the hop limit for an MLD message?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    15
D.    255

Answer: A

QUESTION 407
Refer to the exhibit. Which action must you take to enable the WAN link to function properly?
4071

A.    Enter a clock rate on the DCE interface.
B.    Enter a clock rate on the DTE interface.
C.    Enter a compression algorithm on both interfaces.
D.    Configure both interfaces for HDLC encapsulation.

Answer: A

QUESTION 408
Which two options are the two main phases of PPPoE? (Choose two.)

A.    Active Discovery Phase
B.    IKE Phase
C.    Main Mode Phase
D.    PPP Session Phase
E.    Aggressive Mode Phase
F.    Negotiation Phase

Answer: AD

QUESTION 409
Which three statements about EVCs are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Spanning Tree must use MST mode on EVC ports.
B.    PAGP is supported on EVC ports.
C.    Spanning Tree must use RSTP mode on EVC ports.
D.    LACP is supported on EVC ports.
E.    Layer 2 multicast framing is supported.
F.    Bridge domain routing is required.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 410
Refer to the exhibit. Why is the router out of memory?
4101

A.    The router is experiencing a BGP memory leak software defect.
B.    The BGP peers have been up for too long.
C.    The amount of BGP update traffic in the network is too high.
D.    The router has insufficient memory due to the size of the BGP database.

Answer: D

QUESTION 411
Refer to the exhibit. Why is the OSPF state in 2WAY/DROTHER?
4111

A.    This is the expected output when the interface Ethernet0/0 of R1 is configured with OSPF Priority 0.
B.    There is a duplicate router ID.
C.    There is an MTU mismatch.
D.    There is an OSPF timer (hello/dead) mismatch.
E.    This is the expected output when R1 is the DR.

Answer: A

QUESTION 412
In a nonbackbone OSPF area, all traffic that is destined to the Internet is routed by using a default route that is originated by the ABR. Which change in the configuration of the OSPF area type causes traffic from that area that is destined to the Internet to be dropped?

A.    The OSPF area changes from NSSA to totally stubby area.
B.    The OSPF area changes from NSSA to regular area.
C.    The OSPF area changes from stub area to totally stubby area.
D.    The OSPF area changes from stub area to NSSA.

Answer: D

QUESTION 413
Refer to the exhibit. When the link between RtrB and RtrC goes down, multicast receivers stop receiving traffic from the source for multicast group 229.1.1.1.Which solution will resolve this?
4131

A.    adding a static mroute on RtrB and RtrF
B.    adding a static unicast route on RtrB and RtrF
C.    creating a GRE tunnel between RtrB and RtrD
D.    enabling PIM sparse mode on both ends of the link between RtrB and RtrF

Answer: D

QUESTION 414
Which measure does ISIS use to avoid sending traffic with a wrong MTU configuration?

A.    ISIS does not protect from MTU mismatch.
B.    MTU value is communicated in ISIS Sequence Number PDUs (SNP), and ISIS adjacency is not
established if an MTU mismatch is detected.
C.    ISIS uses path MTU discovery as specified in RFC 1063.
D.    ISIS uses padding of hello packets to full MTU.

Answer: D

QUESTION 415
Which regular expression will match prefixes from the AS 200 that is directly connected to our AS?

A.    ^$
B.    ^200)
C.    _200$
D.    _200_
E.    ^200_

Answer: E

QUESTION 416
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the peer is configured correctly and the interface is up, how many neighbors will be seen in the EIGRPv6 neighbor table on this IPv6-only router?
4161
A.    one neighbor, which will use a local router-id of 6010. AB8. . /64
B.    one neighbor, which will use a local router-id of 6020. AB8. . /64
C.    none, because EIGRPv6 only supports authenticated peers
D.    none, because of the mismatch of timers
E.    none, because there is no EIGRP router ID configured

Answer: E

QUESTION 417
What does a nonzero forwarding address indicate in a type-5 LSA?

A.    It indicates that this link-state ID is eligible for ECMP.
B.    It indicates that this router should have an OSPF neighbor relationship with the forwarding address
before using this link-state ID.
C.    It indicates that the receiving router must check that the next hop is reachable in its routing table
before using this link-state ID.
D.    It indicates that traffic can be directly routed to this next hop in shared segment scenarios where
the external route source is directly connected.

Answer: D

QUESTION 418
Which type of EIGRP routes are summarized by the auto-summary command?

A.    internal routes that are learned from a peer that is outside the range of local network statements
B.    external routes that are learned from a peer that is inside the range of local network statements
C.    locally created routes that are outside the range of local network statements
D.    external routes that are learned from a peer that is outside the range of local network statements

Answer: B

QUESTION 419
Refer to the exhibit. How can the EIGRP hello and hold time for Gig0/0 be changed to 5 and 15?
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A.    No action is required, since Gig0/0 is not listed with a nondefault hello and hold time.
B.    Add the commands ip hello-interval eigrp 1 5 and ip hold-time eigrp 1 15 under interface Gig0/0.
C.    Add the commands hello-interval 5 and hold-time 15 under “af-interface Gig0/0” under the address family.
D.    Add the commands default hello-interval and default hold-time under the af-interface Gig0/0 statement
under the address family.

Answer: C

QUESTION 420
What is the range of addresses that is used for IPv4-mapped IPv6 addresses?

A.    2001. db9. . /32
B.    2001. db8. . /32
C.    2002. . /16
D.    . . ffff. /16
E.    . . ffff. 0. 0/96

Answer: E

QUESTION 421
Which three features require Cisco Express Forwarding? (Choose three.)

A.    NBAR
B.    AutoQoS
C.    fragmentation
D.    MPLS
E.    UplinkFast
F.    BackboneFast

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 422
Which two options are interface requirements for turbo flooding? (Choose two.)

A.    The interface is Ethernet.
B.    The interface is configured for ARPA encapsulation.
C.    The interface is PPP.
D.    The interface is configured for GRE encapsulation.
E.    The interface is configured for 802.1Q encapsulation.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 423
Which three option are sub-subfields of the IPv4 Option Type subfield? (Choose three.)

A.    Option Class
B.    GET
C.    Copied
D.    PUSH
E.    Option Number
F.    TTL

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 424
Which TCP mechanism prevents the sender from sending data too quickly for the receiver to process?

A.    Congestion control
B.    Error detection
C.    Selective acknowledgement
D.    Flow control

Answer: D

QUESTION 425
Which two packet types does an RTP session consist of? (Choose two.)

A.    TCP
B.    RTCP
C.    RTP
D.    ICMP
E.    BOOTP
F.    ARP

Answer: BC

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